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NEW QUESTION # 11
Which of the following is the GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Sen/ices to evaluate a cloud service provider?
- A. Inability to issue SOC 2 or SOC 3 reports
- B. Incompatibility with cloud service business model
- C. Lack of specificity m the principles
- D. Omission of confidentiality in the criteria
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider is the lack of specificity in the principles. This is because the AICPA/CICA Trust Services are a set of principles and criteria that provide guidance for evaluating and reporting on controls over information systems and services. However, the principles and criteria are very broad and generic, and do not address the specific risks and challenges that are associated with cloud services, such as data sovereignty, multi-tenancy, portability, etc. The other options are not drawbacks when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, but rather different aspects or benefits of using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, such as compatibility (A), confidentiality C, or reporting (D).
NEW QUESTION # 12
What is the FIRST activity associated with a successful cyber attack?
- A. Reconnaissance
- B. Maintaining a presence
- C. Creating attack tools
- D. Exploitation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST activity associated with a successful cyber attack is reconnaissance. This is because reconnaissance is a phase of the cyber attack lifecycle that involves gathering information about the target organization or system, such as its network topology, IP addresses, open ports, services, vulnerabilities, etc. Reconnaissance helps to identify potential entry points and weaknesses that can be exploited by the attackers in later phases of the attack. The other options are not the first activity associated with a successful cyber attack, but rather follow after reconnaissance in the cyber attack lifecycle, such as exploitation (A), maintaining a presence C, or creating attack tools (D).
NEW QUESTION # 13
Which of the following are politically motivated hackers who target specific individuals or organizations to achieve various ideological ends?
- A. Script kiddies
- B. Hacktivists
- C. Cybercriminals
- D. Malware researchers
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Hacktivists are politically motivated hackers who target specific individuals or organizations to achieve various ideological ends. They may use various methods such as defacing websites, launching denial-of-service attacks, leaking confidential information, or spreading propaganda to advance their causes or protest against perceived injustices.
NEW QUESTION # 14
Which of the following is a feature of an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
- A. Interface with firewalls
- B. Intrusion prevention
- C. Back doors into applications
- D. Automated response
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A feature of an intrusion detection system (IDS) is automated response. This is because an IDS is a system that monitors network or system activities for malicious or anomalous behavior, and alerts or reports on any detected incidents. An IDS can also perform automated response actions, such as blocking traffic, terminating sessions, or sending notifications, to contain or mitigate the incidents. The other options are not features of an IDS, but rather different concepts or techniques that are related to intrusion detection or prevention, such as intrusion prevention (A), interface with firewalls C, or back doors into applications (D).
NEW QUESTION # 15
Which of the following provides the GREATEST assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss?
- A. Backups of information are regularly tested.
- B. full data backup is performed daily.
- C. Data backups are available onsite for recovery.
- D. The recovery plan is executed during or after an event
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The feature that provides the GREATEST assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss is that backups of information are regularly tested. This is because testing backups helps to ensure that they are valid, complete, and usable, and that they can be restored within the expected time frame and without errors or corruption. Testing backups also helps to identify and resolve any issues or problems with the backup process, media, or software. The other options are not features that provide the greatest assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss, but rather different aspects or factors that affect the backup process, such as availability (B), execution C, or frequency (D) of backups.
NEW QUESTION # 16
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when choosing between different types of cloud services?
- A. Reputation of the cloud providers
- B. Security features available on demand
- C. Overall risk and benefits
- D. Emerging risk and infrastructure scalability
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST important consideration when choosing between different types of cloud services is the overall risk and benefits. This is because choosing between different types of cloud services involves weighing the trade-offs between the risk and benefits of each type of cloud service, such as Software as a Service (SaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), or Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS). For example, SaaS may offer more benefits in terms of cost savings, scalability, and usability, but also more risks in terms of security, privacy, and compliance. On the other hand, IaaS may offer more benefits in terms of flexibility, customization, and control, but also more risks in terms of complexity, management, and maintenance. The other options are not the most important consideration when choosing between different types of cloud services, but rather different aspects or factors that affect the choice of cloud services, such as emerging risk and infrastructure scalability (A), security features available on demand (B), or reputation of the cloud providers (D).
NEW QUESTION # 17
Which intrusion detection system component is responsible for collecting data in the form of network packets, log files, or system call traces?
- A. Administration modules
- B. Analyzers
- C. Sensors
- D. Packet filters
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The intrusion detection system component that is responsible for collecting data in the form of network packets, log files, or system call traces is sensors. This is because sensors are components of an intrusion detection system that are deployed on various locations or points of the network or system, such as routers, switches, servers, etc., and that capture and collect data from the network traffic or system activities. Sensors then forward the collected data to another component of the intrusion detection system, such as analyzers, for further processing and analysis. The other options are not components of an intrusion detection system that are responsible for collecting data in the form of network packets, log files, or system call traces, but rather different components or techniques that are related to intrusion detection or prevention, such as packet filters (A), analyzers (B), or administration modules C.
NEW QUESTION # 18
When reviewing user management roles, which of the following groups presents the GREATEST risk based on their permissions?
- A. Privileged users
- B. Contractors
- C. Terminated employees
- D. Database administrators
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
When reviewing user management roles, the group that presents the GREATEST risk based on their permissions is privileged users. This is because privileged users are users who have elevated or special access rights or permissions to systems or resources, such as administrators, superusers, root users, etc. Privileged users present the greatest risk based on their permissions, because they can perform actions or operations that can affect the security, availability, or functionality of systems or resources, such as installing or uninstalling software, modifying or deleting files, granting or revoking access rights, etc. Privileged users can also abuse or misuse their permissions for malicious or unauthorized purposes, such as stealing or leaking sensitive data, sabotaging systems or services, bypassing security controls, etc. The other options are not groups that present the greatest risk based on their permissions, but rather different types of users that may have different levels of access rights or permissions to systems or resources, such as database administrators (B), terminated employees C, or contractors (D).
NEW QUESTION # 19
What is the PRIMARY purpose of creating a security architecture?
- A. To create a long-term information security strategy
- B. To visually show gaps in information security controls
- C. To provide senior management a measure of information security maturity
- D. To map out how security controls interact with an organization's systems
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The PRIMARY purpose of creating a security architecture is to create a long-term information security strategy that aligns with the organization's business goals and objectives. A security architecture defines the vision, principles, standards, policies, and guidelines for how security will be implemented and managed across the organization's systems, networks, and data.
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which of the following is a MAIN benefit of using Security as a Service (SECaaS) providers?
- A. Significant investments and specialized security skills are not required.
- B. Available security services from providers are affordable to enterprises of all sizes.
- C. Enterprises can use the latest technologies to counter threats that are constantly evolving.
- D. SECaaS providers are compliant with specific security requirements and new regulations.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A MAIN benefit of using Security as a Service (SECaaS) providers is that significant investments and specialized security skills are not required. SECaaS is a type of cloud service model that provides security solutions and services to customers over the internet. SECaaS providers can offer various security functions such as antivirus, firewall, encryption, identity management, vulnerability scanning, and incident response. By using SECaaS providers, customers can save costs and resources on acquiring, maintaining, and updating security hardware and software. Customers can also leverage the expertise and experience of the SECaaS providers to address their security needs and challenges.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which of the following is an attack attribute of an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is designed to remove data from systems and networks?
- A. Adversarial threat event
- B. Kill chain modeling
- C. Infiltration attack vector
- D. Exfiltration attack vector
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
An example of an attack attribute of an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is designed to remove data from systems and networks is an exfiltration attack vector. An exfiltration attack vector is a method or channel that an APT uses to transfer data from a compromised system or network to an external location. Examples of exfiltration attack vectors include email, FTP, DNS, HTTP, or covert channels.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which of the following BEST characterizes security mechanisms for mobile devices?
- A. Comparatively weak relative to workstations
- B. Configurable and reliable across device types
- C. Inadequate for organizational use
- D. Easy to control through mobile device management
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST characteristic that describes security mechanisms for mobile devices is easy to control through mobile device management. This is because mobile device management is a technique that allows organizations to centrally manage and secure mobile devices, such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, etc., that are used by their employees or customers. Mobile device management helps to enforce security policies, configure settings, install applications, monitor usage, wipe data, etc., on mobile devices remotely and efficiently. The other options are not characteristics that describe security mechanisms for mobile devices, but rather different aspects or factors that affect security mechanisms for mobile devices, such as weakness (B), inadequacy C, or reliability (D).
NEW QUESTION # 23
One way to control the integrity of digital assets is through the use of:
- A. hashing.
- B. caching
- C. frameworks.
- D. policies.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
One way to control the integrity of digital assets is through the use of hashing. This is because hashing is a technique that applies a mathematical function to a digital asset, such as a file or a message, and produces a unique and fixed-length value, known as a hash or a digest. Hashing helps to verify the integrity of digital assets, by comparing the hash values before and after transmission or storage, and detecting any changes or modifications to the original asset. The other options are not ways to control the integrity of digital assets, but rather different concepts or techniques that are related to information security, such as policies (A), frameworks (B), or caching C.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which type of tools look for anomalies in user behavior?
- A. Attack-signature-detection tools
- B. Rootkit detection tools
- C. Trend/variance-detection tools
- D. Audit reduction tools
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Trend/variance-detection tools are tools that look for anomalies in user behavior. These tools use statistical methods to establish a baseline of normal user activity and then compare it with current or historical data to identify deviations or outliers. These tools can help to detect unauthorized access, fraud, insider threats, or other malicious activities.
NEW QUESTION # 25
The "recover" function of the NISI cybersecurity framework is concerned with:
- A. taking appropriate action to contain and eradicate a security incident.
- B. planning for resilience and timely repair of compromised capacities and service.
- C. allocating costs incurred as part of the implementation of cybersecurity measures.
- D. identifying critical data to be recovered m case of a security incident.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The "recover" function of the NIST cybersecurity framework is concerned with planning for resilience and timely repair of compromised capacities and service. This is because the recover function helps organizations to restore normal operations as quickly as possible after a cybersecurity incident, while also learning from the incident and improving their security posture. The other options are not part of the recover function, but rather belong to the identify (B), respond C, or protect (D) functions.
NEW QUESTION # 26
While risk is measured by potential activity, which of the following describes the actual occurrence of a threat?
- A. Payload
- B. Target
- C. Attack
- D. Vulnerability
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An attack is the actual occurrence of a threat, which is a potential activity that could harm an asset. An attack is the result of a threat actor exploiting a vulnerability in a system or network to achieve a malicious objective.
For example, a denial-of-service attack is the occurrence of a threat that aims to disrupt the availability of a service.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to information risk management when outsourcing IT function to a third party?
- A. Providers may be restricted from providing detailed ^formation on their employees.
- B. It is difficult to know the applicable regulatory requirements when data is located on another country.
- C. It is difficult to determine vendor financial viability to assess their potential inability to meet contract requirements.
- D. Providers may be reluctant to share technical delays on the extent of their information protection mechanisms.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST challenge to information risk management when outsourcing IT function to a third party is that providers may be reluctant to share technical details on the extent of their information protection mechanisms. This is because providers may consider their information protection mechanisms as proprietary or confidential, or may not want to reveal their weaknesses or vulnerabilities. This makes it difficult for the outsourcing organization to assess the level of security and compliance of the provider, and to monitor and audit their performance. The other options are not as challenging as providers being reluctant to share technical details, because they either involve legal or contractual aspects that can be clarified or negotiated before outsourcing (A, D), or human resource aspects that can be verified or validated by the provider C.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure the successful implementation of continuous auditing?
- A. Budget for additional storage hardware
- B. Top management support
- C. Surplus processing capacity
- D. Budget for additional technical resources
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST important factor to ensure the successful implementation of continuous auditing is top management support. This is because top management support helps to provide the vision, direction, and resources for implementing continuous auditing within the organization. Top management support also helps to overcome any resistance or challenges that may arise from implementing continuous auditing, such as cultural change, stakeholder buy-in, process reengineering, etc. Top management support also helps to ensure that the results and findings of continuous auditing are communicated and acted upon by the relevant decision-makers and stakeholders. The other options are not factors that are more important than top management support for ensuring the successful implementation of continuous auditing, but rather different aspects or benefits of continuous auditing, such as storage hardware (A), technical resources (B), or processing capacity (D).
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following is a client-server program that opens a secure, encrypted command-line shell session from the Internet for remote logon?
- A. VPN
- B. IPsec
- C. SSH
- D. SFTP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is C. SSH.
SSH stands for Secure Shell, a client-server program that opens a secure, encrypted command-line shell session from the Internet for remote logon. SSH allows users to remotely access and execute commands on a server without exposing their credentials or data to eavesdropping, tampering or replay attacks. SSH also supports secure file transfer protocols such as SFTP and SCP1.
VPN stands for Virtual Private Network, a technology that creates a secure, encrypted tunnel between two or more devices over a public network such as the Internet. VPN allows users to access resources on a remote network as if they were physically connected to it, while protecting their privacy and identity2.
IPsec stands for Internet Protocol Security, a set of protocols that provides security at the network layer of the Internet. IPsec supports two modes: transport mode and tunnel mode. Transport mode encrypts only the payload of each packet, while tunnel mode encrypts the entire packet, including the header. IPsec can be used to secure VPN connections, as well as other applications that require data confidentiality, integrity and authentication3.
SFTP stands for Secure File Transfer Protocol, a protocol that uses SSH to securely transfer files between a client and a server over a network. SFTP provides encryption, authentication and compression features to ensure the security and reliability of file transfers.
1: SSH (Secure Shell) 2: What is a VPN? How It Works, Types of VPN | Kaspersky 3: IPsec - Wikipedia :
[SFTP - Wikipedia]
NEW QUESTION # 30
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