Get 100% Authentic ISACA Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Dumps with Correct Answers
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NEW QUESTION # 26
Which of the following is a team created PRIMARILY to improve the security posture of an organization?
- A. Risk management team
- B. Disaster recovery team
- C. Computer emergency response team (CERT)
- D. Security operations center (SOC) team
Answer: D
Explanation:
The primary purpose of a Security Operations Center (SOC) team is to continuously monitor and improve an organization's security posture. They are responsible for the detection, analysis, and response to cybersecurity incidents, using a combination of technology solutions and a strong set of processes.
Reference = ISACA's resources highlight the role of SOC teams in enhancing the security measures of an organization. They are integral to the proactive defense against cyber threats and play a key role in the strategic planning of security measures123.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Using a data loss prevention (DLP) solution to monitor data saved to a USB memory device is an example of managing:
- A. data availability.
- B. data redundancy.
- C. data in use.
- D. data at rest.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Using a data loss prevention (DLP) solution to monitor data saved to a USB memory device is an example of managing data at rest. Data at rest is data that is stored on a device or media, such as hard disks, flash drives, tapes, or CDs. Data at rest can be exposed to unauthorized access, theft, or loss if not properly protected. A DLP solution is a tool that monitors and controls the movement and usage of data across an organization's network or endpoints. A DLP solution can prevent users from saving sensitive data to removable devices or alert on any violations of data policies.
NEW QUESTION # 28
What is the FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments?
- A. Evaluation of implementation details
- B. Inventory and discovery
- C. Hands-on testing
- D. Hand-based shakeout
Answer: B
Explanation:
The FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments is inventory and discovery. This is because the inventory and discovery phase helps auditors to identify and document the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit, as well as the cryptographic assets, systems, processes, and stakeholders involved in the cryptographic environment. The inventory and discovery phase also helps auditors to assess the maturity and effectiveness of the cryptographic governance and management within the organization. The other phases are not the first phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments, but rather follow after the inventory and discovery phase, such as evaluation of implementation details (A), hands-on testing (B), or risk-based shakeout C.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following is MOST effective in detecting unknown malware?
- A. Regular patching
- B. Heuristic-based anti-malware
- C. Host-based firewall
- D. Signature-based anti-malware
Answer: B
Explanation:
Heuristic-based anti-malware is designed to detect new, previously unknown viruses and exploits by looking for known suspicious behavior patterns or anomalies. Unlike signature-based anti-malware, which relies on a database of known malware signatures, heuristic analysis can identify new threats without prior knowledge of the specific malware, making it more effective against unknown malware.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the following BIST enables continuous identification and mitigation of security threats to an organization?
- A. Security training and awareness
- B. Security information and event management (SEM)
- C. Security operations center (SOC)
- D. demit/ and access management (1AM)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A security operations center (SOC) is a centralized unit that monitors, detects, analyzes, and responds to cyber threats and incidents in real time. A SOC enables continuous identification and mitigation of security threats to an organization by using various tools, processes, and expertise.
NEW QUESTION # 31
An IS auditor has learned that a cloud service provider has not adequately secured its application programming interface (API). Which of the following is MOST important for the auditor to consider in an assessment of the potential risk factors?
- A. Denial of service
- B. Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
- C. Identity spoofing and phishing
- D. Resource contention
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST important thing for an IS auditor to consider in an assessment of the potential risk factors when a cloud service provider has not adequately secured its application programming interface (API) is the impact on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the cloud service. An API is a set of rules and protocols that allows communication and interaction between different software components or systems. An API is often used by cloud service providers to enable customers to access and manage their cloud resources and services.
However, if an API is not adequately secured, it can expose the cloud service provider and its customers to various threats, such as unauthorized access, data breaches, tampering, denial-of-service attacks, or malicious code injection.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Within the NIST core cybersecurity framework, which function is associated with using organizational understanding to minimize risk to systems, assets, and data?
- A. Respond
- B. Identify
- C. Recover
- D. Detect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Within the NIST core cybersecurity framework, the identify function is associated with using organizational understanding to minimize risk to systems, assets, and data. This is because the identify function helps organizations to develop an organizational understanding of their cybersecurity risk management posture, as well as the threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts that could affect their business objectives. The other functions are not directly related to using organizational understanding, but rather focus on detecting (A), recovering C, or responding (D) to cybersecurity events.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Security awareness training is MOST effective against which type of threat?
- A. Denial of service
- B. Command injection
- C. Social engineering
- D. Social injection
Answer: C
Explanation:
Security awareness training is MOST effective against social engineering threats. This is because social engineering is a type of attack that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate or trick users into revealing sensitive or confidential information, or performing actions that compromise security. Security awareness training helps to educate users about the common types and techniques of social engineering attacks, such as phishing, vishing, baiting, etc., and how to recognize and avoid them. Security awareness training also helps to foster a culture of security within the organization and empower users to report any suspicious or malicious activities. The other options are not types of threats that security awareness training is most effective against, but rather types of attacks that exploit technical vulnerabilities or flaws in systems or applications, such as command injection (A), denial of service (B), or SQL injection (D).
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which phase typically occurs before containment of an incident?
- A. Identification
- B. Preservation
- C. Eradication
- D. Recovery
Answer: A
Explanation:
The phase that typically occurs before containment in an incident response is Identification. This phase involves detecting and determining the nature of the incident. It's crucial to correctly identify an incident before it can be contained, as containment strategies may vary depending on the type of incident.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following is an example of an application security control?
- A. User security awareness training
- B. Security operations center
- C. Secure coding
- D. Intrusion detection
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An example of an application security control is secure coding. Secure coding is the practice of developing software applications that follow security principles and standards to prevent or mitigate common vulnerabilities and risks. Secure coding involves applying techniques such as input validation, output encoding, error handling, encryption, and testing.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following is the MOST serious consequence of mobile device loss or theft?
- A. Installation of unauthorized applications
- B. Compromise of transient data
- C. Physical damage to devices
- D. Cost of purchasing replacement devices
Answer: B
Explanation:
The MOST serious consequence of mobile device loss or theft is the compromise of transient data. Transient data is data that is temporarily stored or processed on a mobile device, such as cached data, cookies, browsing history, passwords, or session tokens. Transient data can reveal sensitive information about the user or the organization and can be exploited by attackers to gain access to other systems or networks.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following BEST helps IT administrators to ensure servers have no unnecessary features installed?
- A. Comparison against information security policy
- B. Review of vulnerability scanning results
- C. Verification of user acceptance testing
- D. Comparison against baseline standards
Answer: A
Explanation:
To ensure servers have no unnecessary features installed, IT administrators should compare the current server configuration against predefined baseline standards. These standards serve as a guide for the minimum necessary configurations and help identify any deviations, including unnecessary features or services that may introduce security vulnerabilities.
Reference = Baseline standards are a critical component of cybersecurity audits as they provide a clear framework for the secure configuration of systems. ISACA's resources emphasize the importance of using baseline standards as part of the cybersecurity audit process to manage and mitigate risks effectively123.
NEW QUESTION # 38
The most common use of asymmetric algorithms is to:
- A. distribute symmetric keys.
- B. encrypt bulk data.
- C. distribute asymmetric keys.
- D. encrypt data streams.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Asymmetric algorithms are commonly used to securely distribute symmetric keys. The asymmetric encryption process involves a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. This method ensures that even if the public key is intercepted, the encrypted data cannot be decrypted without the corresponding private key. Symmetric keys are then used for the bulk encryption of data due to their efficiency in processing large volumes of information.
Reference = The use of asymmetric algorithms for key distribution is a well-established practice in the field of cryptography. It is mentioned in various ISACA resources that asymmetric encryption, such as RSA and ECC, is crucial for secure communications, especially for the initial exchange of symmetric keys, which are then used for encrypting data streams or bulk data123.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of using a virtual private network (VPN) over dedicated circuits and dial-in servers?
- A. It is higher speed.
- B. It is more reliable
- C. It is more secure
- D. It is more cost effective.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The GREATEST advantage of using a virtual private network (VPN) over dedicated circuits and dial-in servers is that it is more cost effective. This is because a VPN is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection between a client and a server over an existing public network, such as the Internet. A VPN reduces the cost of establishing and maintaining a secure communication channel, as it does not require any additional hardware, software, or infrastructure, unlike dedicated circuits and dial-in servers, which require dedicated lines, modems, routers, switches, etc. The other options are not the greatest advantage of using a VPN over dedicated circuits and dial-in servers, because they either involve security (A), reliability (B), or speed C aspects that may not be significantly different or better than dedicated circuits and dial-in servers.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following is MOST critical to guiding and managing security activities throughout an organization to ensure objectives are met?
- A. Adopting industry security standards and frameworks
- B. Allocating a significant amount of budget to security investments
- C. Conducting annual security awareness training for all employees
- D. Establishing metrics to measure and monitor security performance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST critical thing to guiding and managing security activities throughout an organization to ensure objectives are met is establishing metrics to measure and monitor security performance. This is because metrics provide quantifiable and objective data that can be used to evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of security activities, as well as identify gaps and areas for improvement. Metrics also enable communication and reporting of security performance to stakeholders, such as senior management, board members, auditors, regulators, customers, etc. The other options are not as critical as establishing metrics, because they either involve spending money without knowing the return on investment (A), adopting standards without customizing them to fit the organization's context and needs (B), or conducting training without assessing its impact on behavior change (D).
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when choosing between different types of cloud services?
- A. Security features available on demand
- B. Reputation of the cloud providers
- C. Emerging risk and infrastructure scalability
- D. Overall risk and benefits
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST important consideration when choosing between different types of cloud services is the overall risk and benefits. This is because choosing between different types of cloud services involves weighing the trade-offs between the risk and benefits of each type of cloud service, such as Software as a Service (SaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), or Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS). For example, SaaS may offer more benefits in terms of cost savings, scalability, and usability, but also more risks in terms of security, privacy, and compliance. On the other hand, IaaS may offer more benefits in terms of flexibility, customization, and control, but also more risks in terms of complexity, management, and maintenance. The other options are not the most important consideration when choosing between different types of cloud services, but rather different aspects or factors that affect the choice of cloud services, such as emerging risk and infrastructure scalability (A), security features available on demand (B), or reputation of the cloud providers (D).
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk pertaining to sensitive data leakage when users set mobile devices to "always on" mode?
- A. An adversary can predict a user's login credentials.
- B. A user's behavior pattern can be predicted.
- C. Authorization tokens could be exploited.
- D. Mobile connectivity could be severely weakened.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The GREATEST risk pertaining to sensitive data leakage when users set mobile devices to "always on" mode is that authorization tokens could be exploited. Authorization tokens are pieces of data that are used to authenticate users and grant them access to certain resources or services. Authorization tokens are often stored on mobile devices to enable seamless and convenient access without requiring users to enter their credentials repeatedly. However, if users set their mobile devices to "always on" mode, they increase the risk of losing their devices or having them stolen by attackers. Attackers can then access the authorization tokens stored on the devices and use them to impersonate the users or access their sensitive data.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective technique for implementing network security for human resources (HR) desktops and internal laptop users in an organization?
- A. Fortified demilitarized zone
- B. Layer 3 virtual private network
- C. Software defined perimeter
- D. Virtual local area network
Answer: D
Explanation:
The MOST cost-effective technique for implementing network security for human resources (HR) desktops and internal laptop users in an organization is using a virtual local area network (VLAN). A VLAN is a logical grouping of network devices that share the same broadcast domain regardless of their physical location or connection. A VLAN can enhance network security by isolating different types of traffic or users from each other and applying different security policies or rules based on the VLAN membership. For example, an organization can create a VLAN for HR desktops and internal laptop users that restricts their access to only HR-related systems or resources. A VLAN can also reduce network costs by saving bandwidth, improving performance, and simplifying management.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following is commonly referred to as a Wi-Fi hotspot?
- A. Wireless personal area network (WPAN)
- B. Wireless local area network (WLAN)
- C. Local area network (LAN)
- D. Wide area network (WAN)
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Wi-Fi hotspot is a physical location where people can obtain Internet access, typically using Wi-Fi technology, via a wireless local area network (WLAN) using a router connected to an Internet service provider. Public hotspots are often found in places like coffee shops or hotels and are created from wireless access points configured to provide Internet access1.
NEW QUESTION # 45
What would be an IS auditor's BEST response to an IT managers statement that the risk associated with the use of mobile devices in an organizational setting is the same as for any other device?
- A. Replication of privileged access and the greater likelihood of physical loss increases risk levels.
- B. The risk associated with mobile devices cannot be mitigated with similar controls for workstations.
- C. The ability to wipe mobile devices and disable connectivity adequately mitigates additional
- D. The risk associated with mobile devices is less than that of other devices and systems.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The BEST response to an IT manager's statement that the risk associated with the use of mobile devices in an organizational setting is the same as for any other device is that replication of privileged access and the greater likelihood of physical loss increases risk levels. Mobile devices pose unique risks to an organization due to their portability, connectivity, and functionality. Mobile devices may store or access sensitive data or systems that require privileged access, which can be compromised if the device is lost, stolen, or hacked. Mobile devices also have a higher chance of being misplaced or taken by unauthorized parties than other devices.
NEW QUESTION # 46
What is the MAIN consideration when storing backup files?
- A. Storing backup files on public cloud storage
- B. Utilizing solid slate device (SSDJ media for quick recovery
- C. Protecting the off-site data backup copies from unauthorized access
- D. Storing copies on-site for ease of access during incident response
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The MAIN consideration when storing backup files is protecting the off-site data backup copies from unauthorized access. This is because protecting the off-site data backup copies from unauthorized access helps to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of the backup data, and prevent any unauthorized or malicious disclosure, modification, or deletion of the backup data. Protecting the off-site data backup copies from unauthorized access also helps to comply with any regulatory or contractual requirements that may apply to the backup data. The other options are not the main consideration when storing backup files, but rather different aspects or factors that affect the backup process, such as using solid state device (SSD) media (A), storing backup files on public cloud storage (B), or storing copies on-site (D).
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following is an objective of public key infrastructure (PKI)?
- A. Securely distributing secret keys to the communicating parties
- B. Approving the algorithm to be used during data transmission
- C. Independently authenticating the validity of the sender's public key
- D. Creating the private-public key pair for secure communications
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An objective of public key infrastructure (PKI) is to independently authenticate the validity of the sender's public key. PKI is a system that uses cryptographic keys to secure communications and transactions. PKI involves a trusted third party called a certificate authority (CA) that issues digital certificates that link a public key with an identity. The recipient can use the CA's public key to verify the sender's certificate and public key.
NEW QUESTION # 48
Security awareness training is MOST effective against which type of threat?
- A. Denial of service
- B. Command injection
- C. Social engineering
- D. Social injection
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Security awareness training is MOST effective against social engineering threats. This is because social engineering is a type of attack that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate or trick users into revealing sensitive or confidential information, or performing actions that compromise security. Security awareness training helps to educate users about the common types and techniques of social engineering attacks, such as phishing, vishing, baiting, etc., and how to recognize and avoid them. Security awareness training also helps to foster a culture of security within the organization and empower users to report any suspicious or malicious activities. The other options are not types of threats that security awareness training is most effective against, but rather types of attacks that exploit technical vulnerabilities or flaws in systems or applications, such as command injection (A), denial of service (B), or SQL injection (D).
NEW QUESTION # 49
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