[Mar 05, 2026] Get Up-To-Date Real Exam Questions for CRISC with New Materials
Updated CRISC Certification Exam Sample Questions
The CRISC certification exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions that test the candidate's knowledge and understanding of information systems risk management and control. CRISC exam covers four domains: Risk Identification, Assessment and Evaluation, Risk Response, Risk Monitoring and Reporting, and Information Systems Control Design and Implementation. CRISC exam is four hours long, and a passing score of 450 or higher out of a possible 800 is required to obtain the certification.
ISACA CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) Exam is a certification exam that is designed to test the knowledge and skills of IT professionals who are working in the field of risk management and information systems control. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is highly respected in the industry and is recognized by many organizations as a valuable credential for IT professionals who want to advance their careers. The CRISC certification demonstrates that an individual has the knowledge and skills necessary to identify and manage IT risks, protect information assets, and ensure that information systems are secure and compliant with relevant laws and regulations.
NEW QUESTION # 67
Print jobs containing confidential information are sent to a shared network printer located in a secure room.
Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent the inappropriate disclosure of confidential information?
- A. Requiring a printer access code for each user
- B. Ensuring printer parameters are properly configured
- C. Using physical controls to access the printer room
- D. Using video surveillance in the printer room
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best control to prevent the inappropriate disclosure of confidential information when print jobs containing confidential information are sent to a shared network printer located in a secure room is to require a printer access code for each user. A printer access code is a unique and secret code that the user needs to enter on the printer device to release and retrieve the print job. Requiring a printer access code for each user is the best control, as it helps to prevent or limit the unauthorized access, viewing, or copying of the confidential information on the print job, especially if the print job is left unattended or forgotten on the printer device.
Requiring a printer access code for each user also helps to ensure the accountability and traceability of the user who sent the print job, and to support the audit and monitoring of the printer activity. Using physical controls to access the printer room, using video surveillance in the printer room, and ensuring printer parameters are properly configured are also useful controls, but they are not as effective as requiring a printer access code for each user, as they do not directly prevent or limit the inappropriate disclosure of confidential information on the print job, and they may not deter or detect the unauthorized access or misuse of the print job by the authorized users who have access to the printer room or device. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217.
NEW QUESTION # 68
A control owner responsible for the access management process has developed a machine learning model to automatically identify excessive access privileges. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
- A. Adopt the machine learning model as a replacement for current manual access reviews.
- B. Ensure the model assists in meeting regulatory requirements for access controls.
- C. Review the design of the machine learning model against control objectives.
- D. Discourage the use of emerging technologies in key processes.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 69
Which of the following phases is involved in the Data Extraction, Validation, Aggregation and Analysis?
- A. Risk identification, Risk assessment, Risk response and Risk monitoring
- B. Risk response and Risk monitoring
- C. Explanation:
The basic concepts related to data extraction, validation, aggregation and analysis is important as KRIs often rely on digital information from diverse sources. The phases which are involved in this are: Requirements gathering: Detailed plan and project's scope is required for monitoring risks. In the case of a monitoring project, this step should involve process owners, data owners, system custodians and other process stakeholders. Data access: In the data access process, management identifies which data are available and how they can be acquired in a format that can be used for analysis. There are two options for data extraction: Extracting data directly from the source systems after system owner approval Receiving data extracts from the system custodian (IT) after system owner approval Direct extraction is preferred, especially since this involves management monitoring its own controls, instead of auditors/third parties monitoring management's controls. If it is not feasible to get direct access, a data access request form should be submitted to the data owners that detail the appropriate data fields to be extracted. The request should specify the method of delivery for the file. Data validation: Data validation ensures that extracted data are ready for analysis. One of its important objective is to perform tests examining the data quality to ensure data are valid complete and free of errors. This may also involve making data from different sources suitable for comparative analysis. Following concepts should be considered while validating data: Ensure the validity, i.e., data match definitions in the table layout Ensure that the data are complete Ensure that extracted data contain only the data requested Identify missing data, such as gaps in sequence or blank records Identify and confirm the validity of duplicates Identify the derived values Check if the data given is reasonable or not Identify the relationship between table fields Record, in a transaction or detail table, that the record has no match in a master table Data analysis: Analysis of data involves simple set of steps or complex combination of commands and other functionality. Data analysis is designed in such a way to achieve the stated objectives from the project plan. Although this may be applicable to any monitoring activity, it would be beneficial to consider transferability and scalability. This may include robust documentation, use of software development standards and naming conventions. Reporting and corrective action: According to the requirements of the monitoring objectives and the technology being used, reporting structure and distribution are decided. Reporting procedures indicate to whom outputs from the automated monitoring process are distributed so that they are directed to the right people, in the right format, etc. Similar to the data analysis stage, reporting may also identify areas in which changes to the sensitivity of the reporting parameters or the timing and frequency of the monitoring activity may be required. - D. Requirements gathering, Data access, Data validation, Data analysis, and Reporting and corrective action
- E. Data access and Data validation
Answer: D
Explanation:
is incorrect. These are the phases that are involved in risk management.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence of a control's effectiveness?
- A. A system-generated testing report
- B. A risk and control self-assessment
- C. Senior management's attestation
- D. detailed process walk-through
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most reliable evidence of a control's effectiveness is a system-generated testing report. A system-generated testing report is a document that shows the results of automated tests performed by the system to verify that the control is functioning as intended and producing the expected outcomes. A system-generated testing report is reliable, because it is objective, consistent, accurate, and timely, and because it can provide a high level of assurance and confidence in the control's effectiveness. The other options are not as reliable as a system-generated testing report, although they may provide some evidence of the control's effectiveness. A risk and control self-assessment, senior management's attestation, and a detailed process walk-through are all examples of manual or subjective evidence, which may be prone to errors, biases, or inconsistencies, and which may provide a lower level of assurance and confidence in the control's effectiveness. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 3-32.
NEW QUESTION # 71
Which of the following aspects are included in the Internal Environment Framework of COSO ERM?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
- A. Enterprise's working environment
- B. Enterprise's human resource standards
- C. Enterprise's integrity and ethical values
- D. Enterprise's risk appetite
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The internal environment for risk management is the foundational level of the COSO ERM framework, which describes the philosophical basics of managing risks within the implementing enterprise. The different aspects of the internal environment include the enterprise's:
Philosophy on risk management
Risk appetite
Attitudes of Board of Directors
Integrity and ethical values
Commitment to competence
Organizational structure
Authority and responsibility
Human resource standards
NEW QUESTION # 72
Which of the following would require updates to an organization's IT risk register?
- A. Management review of key risk indicators (KRls)
- B. Changes to the team responsible for maintaining the register
- C. Completion of the latest internal audit
- D. Discovery of an ineffectively designed key IT control
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 73
Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure risk will be managed properly after a business process has been re-engineered?
- A. Reporting key performance indicators (KPIs) for core processes
- B. Reassessing control effectiveness of the process
- C. Conducting a post-implementation review to determine lessons learned
- D. Establishing escalation procedures for anomaly events
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 74
IT stakeholders have asked a risk practitioner for IT risk profile reports associated with specific departments to allocate resources for risk mitigation. The BEST way to address this request would be to use?
- A. information from the risk register
- B. key risk indicators (KRIs)
- C. historical risk assessments
- D. the cost associated with each control
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following provides the MOST important information to facilitate a risk response decision?
- A. Industry best practices
- B. Key risk indicators
- C. Risk appetite
- D. Audit findings
Answer: C
Explanation:
Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite provides the most important information to facilitate a risk response decision, because it reflects the organization's risk tolerance, preferences, and expectations, which guide the selection and implementation of the risk response strategies. Risk appetite helps the organization to balance the potential benefits and costs of taking risks, and to align the risk management process with the organizational strategy and culture. The other options are not as important as risk appetite, because they do not indicate the organization's desired level of risk exposure, but rather provide supplementary or partial information for the risk response decision, as explained below:
A: Audit findings are the results and recommendations of the internal or external audit activities that evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the organization's governance, risk management, and control processes.
Audit findings provide useful information to facilitate a risk response decision, because they can identify the gaps or weaknesses in the current risk response strategies, and suggest corrective actions or improvements.
However, audit findings do not indicate the organization's risk appetite, which is the basis for determining the optimal risk response strategies.
C: Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that measure the impact and likelihood of the risks, and provide early warning signs of changes in the risk exposure. KRIs provide useful information to facilitate a risk response decision, because they can monitor and report the performance and effectiveness of the current risk response strategies, and trigger corrective actions or adjustments. However, KRIs do not indicate the organization's risk appetite, which is the basis for determining the acceptable level of risk exposure and performance.
D: Industry best practices are the standards, norms, and expectations for risk management that are established and followed by the peers or competitors in the same industry or sector. Industry best practices provide useful information to facilitate a risk response decision, because they can benchmark and compare the organization's risk response strategies with those of the leading or successful organizations, and identify areas for improvement or innovation. However, industry best practices do not indicate the organization's risk appetite, which is the basis for determining the unique and customized risk response strategies that suit the organization's needs and goals. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter
2, Section 2.2.2, page 40. Risk Appetite: What It Is and How to Use It, Risk Appetite: How Hungry Are You?, Risk Appetite: The Strategic Balancing Act
NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT action after identifying a high probability of data loss in a system?
- A. Conduct a control assessment.
- B. Increase the frequency of incident reporting.
- C. Enhance the security awareness program.
- D. Purchase cyber insurance from a third party.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A control assessment is the process of evaluating the design and effectiveness of controls that are implemented to mitigate risks. A control assessment can help identify the root causes of data loss, the gaps in the existing controls, and the potential solutions to improve the control environment. A control assessment should be conducted after identifying a high probability of data loss in a system, as it can provide valuable information for risk response and reporting. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.2: Control Assessment, p. 147-149.
NEW QUESTION # 77
Which of the following is the FIRST step when developing a business case to drive the adoption of a risk remediation project by senior management?
- A. Calculating the cost
- B. Identifying the objectives
- C. Analyzing cost-effectiveness
- D. Determining the stakeholders
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 78
A risk practitioner notices that a particular key risk indicator (KRI) has remained below its established trigger point for an extended period of time. Which of the following should be done FIRST?
- A. Update the risk rating associated with the KRI In the risk register.
- B. Notify management that KRIs are being effectively managed.
- C. Update the risk tolerance and risk appetite to better align to the KRI.
- D. Recommend a re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The FIRST thing that should be done when a KRI has remained below its established trigger point for an extended period of time is to recommend a re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI, because it may indicate that the trigger point is set too high or too low, or that the KRI is not relevant or effective in measuring the risk exposure. A re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI may result in adjusting the trigger point, changing the KRI, or removing the KRI. The other options are not the first thing that should be done, because:
* Option B: Notifying management that KRIs are being effectively managed is not the first thing that
* should be done, because it may not reflect the true risk status and performance. A KRI that remains below its trigger point for a long time may not be a valid or reliable indicator of the risk exposure, and it may not capture the changes or trends in the risk environment.
* Option C: Updating the risk rating associated with the KRI in the risk register is not the first thing that should be done, because it may not be accurate or consistent. A risk rating is based on the likelihood and impact of the risk, and it should be derived from a comprehensive risk analysis, not just from a single KRI. A KRI that remains below its trigger point for a long time may not reflect the actual likelihood and impact of the risk, and it may not be aligned with the other risk indicators and assessments.
* Option D: Updating the risk tolerance and risk appetite to better align to the KRI is not the first thing that should be done, because it may not be appropriate or feasible. Risk tolerance and risk appetite are the acceptable level of risk exposure and variation that the enterprise is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, and they are determined by the executive management and the board of directors, based on the enterprise's strategy and goals. A KRI that remains below its trigger point for a long time may not represent the desired or optimal level of risk exposure and variation, and it may not be aligned with the enterprise's strategy and goals. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 121.
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security
metrics reporting?
- A. Organizational reporting process
- B. Incident reporting procedures
- C. Incident management policy
- D. Regularly scheduled audits
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most important factor to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting is
an organizational reporting process. An organizational reporting process is a set of procedures that defines the
roles, responsibilities, frequency, format, and distribution of the risk and security metrics reports. An
organizational reporting process helps to ensure that the risk and security metrics are relevant, accurate,
consistent, and timely, and that they provide useful information for decision making and performance
improvement. An organizational reporting process also helps to align the risk and security metrics reporting
with the enterprise's objectives, strategies, and policies, and to communicate the risk and security status and
issues to the appropriate stakeholders. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th
Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, page 2421
NEW QUESTION # 80
The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vendor risk management
program is the percentage of:
- A. vendors that have reported control-related incidents.
- B. vendor contracts reviewed in the past year.
- C. vendor risk mitigation action items completed on time.
- D. vendors providing risk assessments on time.
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, vendor risk mitigation action items are the specific tasks and
activities that are assigned to the vendors or the organization to address the identified risks and implementthe
risk responses. The percentage of vendor risk mitigation action items completed on time is the best key
performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vendor risk management program, as it helps to
evaluate the timeliness and quality of the vendor performance, the alignment of the vendor activities with the
organization's risk appetite and objectives, and the achievement of the expected outcomes and benefits of the
risk responses. The percentage of vendor risk mitigation action items completed on time also helps to identify
andresolve any issues or gaps in the vendor risk management process, and to improve the vendor relationship
and communication. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 230.
NEW QUESTION # 81
A PRIMARY objective of disaster recovery is to:
- A. Improve infrastructure of physical locations
- B. Recover financial data and statements
- C. Restore critical business and IT services
- D. Maintain operational processes and connectivity
Answer: C
Explanation:
Disaster Recovery (DR) focuses on restoring IT and business services to support essential operations after a disruption.
ISACA defines:
"The primary objective of disaster recovery is the timely restoration of critical IT systems and services necessary to support business operations." Recovery of financial records or facilities are secondary components.
Therefore, B. Restore critical business and IT services is correct.
CRISC Reference: Domain 3 - Risk Response and Mitigation, Topic: Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery Planning.
NEW QUESTION # 82
The effectiveness of a control has decreased. What is the MOST likely effect on the associated risk?
- A. The risk classification changes.
- B. The risk impact changes.
- C. The inherent risk changes.
- D. The residual risk changes.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most likely effect on the associated risk when the effectiveness of a control has decreased is that the
residual risk changes. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses or
controls. If the control becomes less effective, the residual risk will increase, as the risk exposure and impact
will be higher than expected. The risk impact, the risk classification, and the inherent risk are not likely to
change when the effectiveness of a control has decreased, as they are more related to the nature and
characteristics of the risk, rather than the control performance. References = Risk and Information Systems
Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.4, page 541
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Exam Guide, Answer to Question
652.
NEW QUESTION # 83
A web-based service provider with a low risk appetite for system outages is reviewing its current risk profile for online security. Which of the following observations would be MOST relevant to escalate to senior management?
- A. A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities
- B. An increase in attempted website phishing attacks
- C. An increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks
- D. A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 84
Which of the following is MOST helpful in preventing risk events from materializing?
- A. Prioritizing and tracking issues
- B. Maintaining the risk register
- C. Reviewing and analyzing security incidents
- D. Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that provide early warning signals of potential risk events or changes in the risk profile of an organization. They help to monitor the risk exposure and performance of the organization against its risk appetite and tolerance. They also enable timely and proactive risk responses and mitigation actions. Establishing KRIs is the most helpful in preventing risk events from materializing, as they can alert the organization of emerging risks and trigger preventive measures before the risks become significant or materialize. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1, p.
114-115
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which of the following is the MOST important driver of an effective enterprise risk management (ERM) program?
- A. Risk committee
- B. Risk culture
- C. Risk policy
- D. Risk management plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
Risk culture is the foundation upon which ERM is built. It dictates how employees perceive, communicate, and act on risk. A strong risk culture ensures consistency in risk behaviors, supports governance, and sustains long-term effectiveness of the ERM.
Reference:CRISC Manual - Domain 1, Slide 80-84
NEW QUESTION # 86
A risk practitioners PRIMARY focus when validating a risk response action plan should be that risk response:
- A. quantifies risk impact
- B. reduces risk to an acceptable level
- C. aligns with business strategy
- D. advances business objectives.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The primary focus of a risk practitioner when validating a risk response action plan should be that the risk
response reduces risk to an acceptable level. A risk response action plan is a document that describes the
actions or measures that are taken or planned to modify the risk, such as reducing, avoiding, transferring, or
accepting the risk1. Validating a risk response action plan means verifying whether the plan is feasible,
effective, and efficient in addressing the risk2. The main objective of validating a risk response action plan is
to ensure that the risk response reduces risk to an acceptable level, which is the level of risk that the
organization is willing to tolerate or bear, based on its risk appetite and risk criteria3. Reducing risk to an
acceptable level means that the risk response actions can lower the likelihood or impact of the risk to a point
where the risk does not pose a significant threat or challenge to the organization's objectives, operations, or
performance. Reducing risk to an acceptable level also means that the risk response actions can balance the
benefits and costs of the risk response, and that they can provide a reasonable assurance of the risk
management effectiveness and efficiency4. The other options are not the primary focus of a risk practitioner
when validating a risk response action plan, as they are either less relevant or less specific than reducing risk
to an acceptable level. Quantifying risk impact is a component or element of validating a risk response action
plan, nota focus of it. Quantifying risk impact means measuring or estimating the potential effects or
consequences of the risk on the organization5. Quantifying risk impact can help to evaluate the severity and
priority of the risk, as well as to compare the risk against the risk criteria and the risk appetite. However,
quantifying risk impact is not the primary focus of a risk practitioner when validating a risk response action
plan, as it does not address the feasibility, effectiveness, or efficiency of the risk response actions, or the level
of risk reduction that they can achieve. Aligning with business strategy is a secondary or incidental benefit of
validating a risk response action plan, not a primary or essential focus of it. Aligning with business strategy
means ensuring that the risk response actions are consistent and coherent with the organization's goals and
values6. Aligning with business strategy can help to integrate the risk response actions with the organization's
culture and governance, as well as to support and enable the achievement of the organization's mission and
vision. However, aligning with business strategy is not the main focus of a risk practitioner when validating a
risk response action plan, as it does not indicate the feasibility, effectiveness, or efficiency of the risk response
actions, or the level of risk reduction that they can achieve. Advancing business objectives is a tertiary or
indirect outcome of validating a risk response action plan, not a primary or direct focus of it. Advancing
business objectives means contributing to the improvement and enhancement of the organization's
performance and results7. Advancing business objectives can help to create value and deliver benefits for the
organization and its stakeholders, as well as to optimize the use of the organization's resources and
capabilities. However, advancing business objectives is not the main focus of a risk practitioner when
validating a risk response action plan, as it does not address the feasibility, effectiveness, or efficiency of the
risk response actions, or the level of risk reduction that they can achieve. References = Risk and Information
Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.8, Page 61.
NEW QUESTION # 87
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The benefits of obtaining a CRISC certification are numerous. CRISC certified professionals are highly sought after in the job market and are often paid a premium for their expertise. Additionally, the certification provides individuals with the knowledge and skills needed to effectively manage information system risks in an organization, thereby reducing the risk of data breaches and other security incidents. Finally, the CRISC certification demonstrates a commitment to professional development and a desire to stay up-to-date with the latest developments in the field of information systems and risk management.
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