[Jun-2026] The ISC CISSP Exam Test For Brief Preparation
Revolutionary Guide To Exam ISC Dumps
The ISC CISSP exam is conducted by the International Information Systems Security Certification Consortium (ISC)², which is a non-profit organization committed to advancing the cybersecurity profession by promoting best practices and education. The CISSP exam is designed to measure a candidate's knowledge in various domains of information security, such as security and risk management, asset security, security engineering, communication and network security, identity and access management, security assessment and testing, security operations, and software development security.
To be eligible for the ISC CISSP Certification Exam, candidates must have a minimum of five years of professional experience in the field of information security, with a four-year college degree or equivalent. Alternatively, candidates with less experience can still take the exam but must have additional education or industry certifications to qualify. CISSP exam consists of 250 multiple-choice questions and takes up to six hours to complete. The passing score is 700 out of 1000.
NEW QUESTION # 355
If any server in the cluster crashes, processing continues transparently, however, the cluster suffers some performance degradation. This implementation is sometimes called a:
- A. host farm
- B. client farm
- C. server farm
- D. cluster farm
Answer: C
Explanation:
If any server in the cluster crashes, processing continues transparently, however, the cluster suffers some performance degradation. This implementation is sometimes called a "server farm."
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the
Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 67.
NEW QUESTION # 356
Which of the following is a characteristic of a challenge/response authentication process?
- A. Using a password history blacklist
- B. Requiring the use of non-consecutive numeric characters
- C. Presenting distorted graphics of text for authentication
- D. Transmitting a hash based on the user's password
Answer: D
Explanation:
A characteristic of a challenge/response authentication process is transmitting a hash based on the user's password. A challenge/response authentication process is a type of authentication method that involves the exchange of a challenge and a response between the authenticator and the authenticatee. The challenge is usually a random or unpredictable value, such as a nonce or a timestamp, that is sent by the authenticator to the authenticatee. The response is usually a value that is derived from the challenge and the user's password, such as a hash or a message authentication code (MAC), that is sent by the authenticatee to the authenticator. The authenticator then verifies the response by applying the same algorithm and password to the challenge, and comparing the results. If the response matches the expected value, the authentication is successful. Transmitting a hash based on the user's password can provide a secure and efficient way of proving the user's identity, without revealing the password in plaintext or requiring the storage of the password on the authenticator.
NEW QUESTION # 357
In which of the following cloud computing service model are applications hosted by the service provider and made available to the customers over a network?
- A. Infrastructure as a service
- B. Platform as a service
- C. Software as a service
- D. Data as a service
Answer: C
Explanation:
Software as a Service (SaaS) is a software distribution model in which applications are hosted by a vendor or service provider and made available to customers over a network, typically the Internet. SaaS is closely related to the ASP (application service provider) and on demand computing software delivery models.
For your exam you should know below information about Cloud Computing:
Cloud computing is a model for enabling ubiquitous, convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications, and services) that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction. This cloud model promotes availability and is composed of five essential characteristics, three service models, and four deployment models.
Cloud Computing Image Reference http://osarena.net/wp-content/uploads/2013/04/cloud-computing3.jpg
Cloud computing service model Cloud computing service models
Image Reference http://www.esri.com/news/arcwatch/0110/graphics/feature2.jpg
Software as a Service (SaaS)
Software as a Service (SaaS) is a software distribution model in which applications are hosted by
a vendor or service provider and made available to customers over a network, typically the
Internet.SaaS is closely related to the ASP (application service provider) and on demand
computing software delivery models. IDC identifies two slightly different delivery models for SaaS.
The hosted application management (hosted AM) model is similar to ASP: a provider hosts
commercially available software for customers and delivers it over the Web. In the software on
demand model, the provider gives customers network-based access to a single copy of an
application created specifically for SaaS distribution.
Provider gives users access to specific application software (CRM, e-mail, games). The provider
gives the customers network based access to a single copy of an application created specifically
for SaaS distribution and use.
Benefits of the SaaS model include:
easier administration
automatic updates and patch management
compatibility: All users will have the same version of software.
easier collaboration, for the same reason
global accessibility.
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a way to rent hardware, operating systems, storage and network
capacity over the Internet. The service delivery model allows the customer to rent virtualized
servers and associated services for running existing applications or developing and testing new
ones.
Cloud providers deliver a computing platform,which can include an operating system, database,
and web server as a holistic execution environment. Where IaaS is the "raw IT network," PaaS is
the software environment that runs on top of the IT network.
Platform as a Service (PaaS) is an outgrowth of Software as a Service (SaaS), a software
distribution model in which hosted software applications are made available to customers over the
Internet. PaaS has several advantages for developers. With PaaS, operating system features can
be changed and upgraded frequently. Geographically distributed development teams can work
together on software development projects. Services can be obtained from diverse sources that
cross international boundaries. Initial and ongoing costs can be reduced by the use of
infrastructure services from a single vendor rather than maintaining multiple hardware facilities that
often perform duplicate functions or suffer from incompatibility problems. Overall expenses can
also be minimized by unification of programming development efforts.
On the downside, PaaS involves some risk of "lock-in" if offerings require proprietary service
interfaces or development languages. Another potential pitfall is that the flexibility of offerings may
not meet the needs of some users whose requirements rapidly evolve.
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Cloud providers offer the infrastructure environment of a traditional data center in an on-demand
delivery method. Companies deploy their own operating systems, applications, and software onto
this provided infrastructure and are responsible for maintaining them.
Infrastructure as a Service is a provision model in which an organization outsources the equipment
used to support operations, including storage, hardware, servers and networking components. The
service provider owns the equipment and is responsible for housing, running and maintaining it.
The client typically pays on a per-use basis.
The following answers are incorrect:
Data as a service - Data Provided as a service rather than needing to be loaded and prepared on
premises.
Platform as a service - Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a way to rent hardware, operating systems,
storage and network capacity over the Internet. The service delivery model allows the customer to
rent virtualized servers and associated services for running existing applications or developing and
testing new ones.
Infrastructure as a service - Infrastructure as a Service is a provision model in which an
organization outsources the equipment used to support operations, including storage, hardware,
servers and networking components. The service provider owns the equipment and is responsible
for housing, running and maintaining it. The client typically pays on a per-use basis.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 page number 102
Official ISC2 guide to CISSP 3rd edition Page number 689
http://searchcloudcomputing.techtarget.com/definition/Software-as-a-Service
http://searchcloudcomputing.techtarget.com/definition/Platform-as-a-Service-PaaS
http://searchcloudcomputing.techtarget.com/definition/Infrastructure-as-a-Service-IaaS
NEW QUESTION # 358
Which of the following is NOT a true statement about Network Address
Translation (NAT)?
- A. NAT is designed to mask the true IP addresses of internal systems.
- B. Private addresses can easily be routed globally.
- C. NAT translates private IP addresses to registered real IP addresses.
- D. NAT is used when corporations want to use private addressing ranges for internal networks.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is "Private addresses can easily be routed globally" Private addresses are not easily routable; hence the reason for using NAT.
NEW QUESTION # 359
Which one of the following is the MOST important in designing a biometric access system if it is essential that no one other than authorized individuals are admitted?
- A. False Rejection Rate (FRR)
- B. Rejection Error Rate
- C. Crossover Error Rate (CER)
- D. False Acceptance Rate (FAR)
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 360
A company wants to implement two-factor authentication (2FA) to protect their computers from unauthorized users. Which solution provides the MOST secure means of authentication and meets the criteria they have set?
- A. Short Message Services (SMS) and smartphone authenticator
- B. Username and personal identification number (PIN)
- C. Hardware token and password
- D. Fingerprint and retinal scanners
Answer: C
Explanation:
Two-factor authentication (2FA) is a method of authentication that requires two independent factors to verify the identity of a user. The factors are usually classified into three categories: something you know (such as a password or a PIN), something you have (such as a hardware token or a smart card), and something you are (such as a fingerprint or a retinal scan). A hardware token and a password provide the most secure means of authentication among the given options, as they belong to different categories and are less susceptible to theft, duplication, or compromise. A username and a PIN are both something you know, and thus do not constitute
2FA. A fingerprint and a retinal scanner are both something you are, and thus do not constitute 2FA. A Short Message Service (SMS) and a smartphone authenticator are both something you have, and thus do not constitute 2FA. Moreover, SMS is not a secure channel for transmitting authentication codes, as it can be intercepted or spoofed by attackers. References: 1, 2, 6
NEW QUESTION # 361
Which of the following devices enables more than one signal to be sent out simultaneously over one physical circuit?
- A. Router
- B. Multiplexer
- C. Channel service unit/Data service unit (CSU/DSU)
- D. Wan switch
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An electronic multiplexer makes it possible for several signals to share one device or resource. A multiplexer (or mux) is a device that selects one of several analog or digital input signals and forwards the selected input into a single line.
Incorrect Answers:
A: A router forwards data packets. A router does not handle signals.
C: A CSU/DSU is a digital-interface device used to connect a data terminal equipment (DTE), such as a router, to a digital circuit, such as a Digital Signal 1 (T1) line.
D: A switch forwards traffic at the data link layer of the OSI model. It does operate with multiple signals.
References:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Multiplexer
NEW QUESTION # 362
Which of the following BEST describes Recovery Time Objective (RTO)?
- A. Time of data validation after disaster
- B. Time of application verification after disaster
- C. Time of application resumption after disaster
- D. Time of data restoration from backup after disaster
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best description of Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is the time of application resumption after disaster. RTO is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable time that an application or a system can be unavailable or offline after a disaster or a disruption. RTO is based on the business impact analysis and the recovery requirements of the organization, and it helps to determine the recovery strategies and the resources needed to restore the application or the system to its normal operation. Time of data validation after disaster, time of data restoration from backup after disaster, and time of application verification after disaster are not the best descriptions of RTO, as they are related to the quality, accuracy, or completeness of the data or the application, not the availability or the downtime of the application or the system.
NEW QUESTION # 363
Which of the following is the BEST option to reduce the network attack surface of a system?
- A. Removing unnecessary system user accounts
- B. Disabling unnecessary ports and services
- C. Ensuring that there are no group accounts on the system
- D. Uninstalling default software on the system
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 364
Utilizing a public wireless Local Area network (WLAN) to connect to a private network should be done only in which of the following situations?
- A. The client machine has antivirus software and has been seamed to determine if unauthorized ports are open.
- B. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is utilized to authenticate the user.
- C. The wireless Access Point (AP) is placed in the internal private network.
- D. The client machine has a personal firewall and utilizes a Virtual Private Network (VPN) to connect to the network.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Using a VPN ensures that the connection is secure and encrypted, while the personal firewall helps protect the client machine. Together, these measures allow a secure connection to a private network even over a public WLAN.
NEW QUESTION # 365
Which of the following is used to create parity information?
- A. a striping code
- B. a clustering code
- C. a mirroring code
- D. a hamming code
Answer: D
Explanation:
RAID Level 2 :- The parity information is created using a hamming code that detects errors and establishes which part of which drive is in error.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the
Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 66.
NEW QUESTION # 366
A type of access control that supports the management of access rights
for groups of subjects is:
- A. Rule-based
- B. Mandatory
- C. Discretionary
- D. Role-based
Answer: D
Explanation:
Role-based access control assigns identical privileges to groups of
users. This approach simplifies the management of access rights,
particularly when members of the group change. Thus, access rights are
assigned to a role, not to an individual. Individuals are entered as
members of specific groups and are assigned the access privileges of that group.
In answer Discretionary, the access rights to an object are assigned by the owner at the owner's discretion. For large numbers of people whose duties and participation may change frequently, this type of access control can become unwieldy. Mandatory access control, answer c, uses
security labels or classifications assigned to data items and clearances assigned to users. A user has access rights to data items with a classification equal to or less than the user's clearance. Another restriction is that the user has to have a need-to-know the information; this requirement is identical to the principle of least privilege.
Answer 'rule-based access control' assigns access rights based on stated rules. An example of a rule is Access to trade-secret data is restricted to corporate officers, the data owner and the legal department.
NEW QUESTION # 367
Complex applications involving multimedia, computer aided design, video, graphics, and expert systems are more suited to which of the following database type?
- A. Data base management systems (DBMS)
- B. Object-Oriented Data Bases (OODB)
- C. Object-Relational Data Bases
- D. Relational Data Bases
Answer: B
Explanation:
Complex applications involving multimedia, computer aided design, video, graphics,
and expert systems are more suited to OODB.
The Object-Oriented Data Bases (OODB) database model stores data as objects.
The OODB objects are a collection of public and private data items and the set of operations that
can be executed on the data. Because the data objects contain their own operations, any call to
data potentially has the full range of database functions available.
The object-oriented model does not necessarily require a high-level language like SQL, because
the functions (or methods) are contained within the objects. An advantage of not having a query
language allows the object-oriented DBMS to interact with applications without the language
overhead.
Relational models are starting to add object-oriented functions and interfaces, to create an object-
relational model.
An object-relational database system is a hybrid system: a relational DBMS that has an object-
oriented interface built on top of the original software. This can be accomplished either by a
separate interface or by adding additional commands to the current system. The hybrid model
allows organizations to maintain their current relational database software and, at the same time,
provide an upgrade path for future technologies.
Relational Database Management Model (RDBMS)
The majority of organizations use software based on the relational database management model.
The relational database has become so dominant in database management systems that many
people consider it to be the only form of database. (This may create problems when dealing with
other table-oriented database systems that do not provide the integrity functions required in a true
relational database.) The relational model is based on set theory 8 and predicate logic 9 and
provides a high level of abstraction. The use of set theory allows data to be structured in a series
of tables that have columns representing the variables and rows that contain specific instances of
data. These tables are organized using normal forms. The relational model outlines how
programmers should design the DBMS so that different database systems used by the
organization can communicate with each other.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition
((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 12356-12365). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
and
Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 1175). McGraw-Hill.
Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION # 368
Controls such as job rotation, the sharing of responsibilities, and reviews of audit records are associated with:
- A. detective/administrative.
- B. detective/physical.
- C. preventive/physical.
- D. detective/technical.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Examples of detective administrative controls include monitoring and supervising, job rotation, and investigations.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Examples of preventive/physical controls include locks, badge systems, security guards, biometric system, and mantrap doors.
B: Examples of detective/technical controls include audit logs and IDS.
C: Examples of detective/physical controls include motion detectors and closed-circuit TVs.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, 2013, pp. 28-34
NEW QUESTION # 369
Which of the following Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability (CIA) attribute supports the principle of least privilege by providing access to information only to authorized and intended users?
- A. Availability
- B. Integrity
- C. Accuracy
- D. Confidentiality
Answer: D
Explanation:
Confidentiality supports the principle of "least privilege" by providing that only authorized individuals, processes, or systems should have access to information on a need-to-know basis.
The level of access that an authorized individual should have is at the level necessary for them to do their job. In recent years, much press has been dedicated to the privacy of information and the need to protect it from individuals, who may be able to commit crimes by viewing the information.
Identity theft is the act of assuming one's identity through knowledge of confidential information obtained from various sources.
An important measure to ensure confidentiality of information is data classification. This helps to determine who should have access to the information (public, internal use only, or confidential). Identification, authentication, and authorization through access controls are practices that support maintaining the confidentiality of information.
A sample control for protecting confidentiality is to encrypt information. Encryption of information limits the usability of the information in the event it is accessible to an unauthorized person.
For your exam you should know the information below:
Integrity
Integrity is the principle that information should be protected from intentional, unauthorized, or accidental changes.
Information stored in files, databases, systems, and networks must be relied upon to accurately process transactions and provide accurate information for business decision making. Controls are put in place to ensure that information is modified through accepted practices.
Sample controls include management controls such as segregation of duties, approval checkpoints in the systems development life cycle, and implementation of testing practices that assist in providing information integrity. Well-formed transactions and security of the update programs provide consistent methods of applying changes to systems. Limiting update access to those individuals with a need to access limits the exposure to intentional and unintentional modification.
Availability
Availability is the principle that ensures that information is available and accessible to users when needed.
The two primary areas affecting the availability of systems are:
1. Denial-of-Service attacks and
2. Loss of service due to a disaster, which could be man-made (e.g., poor capacity planning resulting in system crash, outdated hardware, and poor testing resulting in system crash after upgrade) or natural (e.g., earthquake, tornado, blackout, hurricane, fire, and flood).
In either case, the end user does not have access to information needed to conduct business. The criticality of the system to the user and its importance to the survival of the organization will determine how significant the impact of the extended downtime becomes.
The lack of appropriate security controls can increase the risk of viruses, destruction of data, external penetrations, or denial-of-service (DOS) attacks. Such events can prevent the system from being used by normal users.
CIA
The following answers are incorrect:
Integrity - Integrity is the principle that information should be protected from intentional, unauthorized, or accidental changes.
Availability - Availability is the principle that ensures that information is available and accessible to users when needed.
Accuracy - Accuracy is not a valid CIA attribute.
Following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 314
Official ISC2 guide to CISSP CBK 3rd Edition Page number 350
NEW QUESTION # 370
Which of the following is critical if an employee is dismissed due to violation of an organization's Acceptable Use Policy (ALP)?
- A. Privilege suspension
- B. Appropriate documentation
- C. Proxy records
- D. Internet access logs
Answer: B
Explanation:
Appropriate documentation is critical if an employee is dismissed due to violation of an organization's Acceptable Use Policy (AUP). An AUP is a policy that defines the acceptable and unacceptable use of the organization's information systems and resources by the employees. A violation of the AUP can result in disciplinary actions, such as warnings, suspension, or termination. Appropriate documentation can provide evidence of the violation, the investigation process, the communication with the employee, and the decision of the dismissal. Appropriate documentation can also protect the organization from legal challenges or disputes from the dismissed employee. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1: Security and Risk Management, page 38; [Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 1: Security and Risk Management, page 100]
NEW QUESTION # 371
Copyright provides protection for which of the following?
- A. New and non-obvious inventions
- B. A particular expression of an idea
- C. Ideas expressed in literary works
- D. Discoveries of natural phenomena
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 372
A gap analysis for the Transactions set refer to the practice of identifying the data content you currently have available
- A. through your medical software
- B. through competing unit medical software
- C. through your accounting software
- D. based on the statutory authorities report
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 373
The control of communications test equipment should be clearly addressed by security policy for which of the following reasons?
- A. Test equipment is difficult to replace if lost or stolen.
- B. Test equipment can be used to browse information passing on a network.
- C. Test equipment must always be available for the maintenance personnel.
- D. Test equipment is easily damaged.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Test equipment must be secured. There are equipment and other tools that if in the
wrong hands could be used to "sniff" network traffic and also be used to commit fraud. The
storage and use of this equipment should be detailed in the security policy for this reason.
The following answers are incorrect:
Test equipment is easily damaged. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer, and from a
security point of view not relevent.
Test equipment is difficult to replace if lost or stolen. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer,
and from a security point of view not relevent.
Test equipment must always be available for the maintenance personnel. Is incorrect because it is
not the best answer, and from a security point of view not relevent.
References:
OIG CBK Operations Security (pages 642 - 643)
NEW QUESTION # 374
......
ISC CISSP (Certified Information Systems Security Professional) Exam is a globally recognized certification program that validates the skills and knowledge of information security professionals. Administered by the International Information System Security Certification Consortium (ISC)², the CISSP certification program is designed to help individuals develop a deep understanding of the eight domains of information security. CISSP exam covers topics such as security and risk management, asset security, security engineering, communication and network security, identity and access management, security assessment and testing, security operations, and software development security.
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